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Are moral realism and moral objectivism the same thing, as Vaughn seems to think?

Moral antirealists might think they are committed to an objective standard, in the sense that other people would be able to reliably decide whether an action violated it or not without knowing the mental state of the participants and without sharing a particular subjective mental state themselves. What allows this as an expression of anti-realism is the claim that this standard and their commitment to it is not stance-independent. The stance-dependent aspect does not necessarily preclude that the standard is objective in the relevant way. The subjectivity lies entirely in the agents' commitment, in what motivates them to endorse and conform to this standard. (That is not to say that all standards must be or are objective.)

Or am I reading “stance” wrong? I’ve never seen a careful explanation of this term, which seems to have a technical meaning in this context.

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