Analytic moral realism and unsubstantiated empirical claims about moral experience
J.P. Andrew (hereafter JPA) has recently revived his blog Reflections on What Matters. Go check it out. JPA is a proponent of non-naturalist moral realism, so it should come as no surprise that I have something to say on the matter. In this post, I want to address an updated version of an earlier article from JPA, simply titled “Moral realism.” JPA begins with this remark:
In a previous essay, I argued that if we take seriously the idea that some things matter, we will find ourselves pushed toward a form of:
Value realism: there exist stance-independent evaluative truths — truths about what is valuable that obtain independently of anyone’s beliefs, preferences, desires, emotions, or attitudes.
Note the phrasing: both the notion that if we take certain things “seriously,” and in particular that “some things matter.” I am a moral antirealist. I take seriously the idea that some things matter. And yet this doesn’t push me towards value realism. This is because the notion that “some things matter” doesn’t specify the respect in which things matter. As an antirealist, I think things matter to people and relative to different stances. This is the only defensible sense in which I think anything can or does matter. And there’s nothing unserious about this.
JPA’s remarks are thus, from the very outset, a form of rhetoric. They serve a preemptive framing function where JPA can depict his own account as “serious” and antirealist accounts, by implication, as “unserious.” Now, JPA is perfectly entitled to think that the only “serious” sense in which things could matter is from a realist view, but such a position is itself a substantive theoretical commitment that cannot be held from a neutral point of view of the overall debate. The way JPA sets up the dispute, this perspective-contingent conception of taking things seriously is nonobvious and could readily give the impression to readers that antirealism is in some overarching sense “unserious.”
Shortly thereafter, JPA states:
If moral realism is true, then morality is not something invented by human beings, negotiated into existence by societies, or constructed out of our attitudes. Moral truths are not made true by the fact that we approve of them. Rather, morality presents itself as something to which we are answerable. The moral domain appears, at least pre-theoretically, to involve standards that we discover rather than create.
Notice this remark: “Rather, morality presents itself as something to which we are answerable.” On a technical note, this does not follow. It is possible both for moral realism to be true and for it to not “present” itself to us in any way at all, much less in a way “to which we are answerable.”
On a more general note, what would it even mean for us to be “answerable” if moral realism were true? Consider ways we might use the notion of being “answerable” in ordinary language. We might say that a person is only answerable to the law, or to the King, or their boss, or whatever. In these cases, such answerability involves the notion that one is subject to being held accountable by some authority or other. And such accountability only carries weight through practically relevant carrots and sticks: the police can haul you off to jail, the King can cut off your head, your boss can fire you, and so on.
When it comes to violating stance-independent moral obligations to which you are allegedly “answerable,” what, exactly, is the consequence of you violating them? Well, the “consequence” is that you have violated them.
…That’s it. Whereas the kind of practical answerability enforced by police and monarchs has practical relevance, the kind of “answerability” realists believe is somehow the more “serious” and perhaps even the only true or legitimate or fundamental type of answerability has no teeth. It’s as if one takes a notion, strips it of all practical relevance, and then declares it the actual or true form of the thing in question:
Real horses have no shape, no mass, no extension in space, and no properties at all that could impinge on you or anyone else.
Genuine pain has no phenomenology, no functional features, and no causal impact on anyone, ever, even in principle.
…and so on. The realist view of morality seems to strip morality of anything of substance, of the very things that would lead pragmatists like me to say it is real, and then declares the phantom residue real. If that’s what reality is, I’ll stick with the shadows on the wall.
JPA began by simply introducing the reader to moral realism, stating that if we “take morality seriously” we’d be pulled towards moral realism, defined as follows:
Moral Realism: there exist stance-independent moral truths — truths about what one morally ought and ought not to do that obtain independently of anyone’s beliefs, preferences, desires, emotions, or attitudes.
Yet JPA immediately follows this with remarks about how morality presents itself to us, before culminating in the claim that:
The moral domain appears, at least pre-theoretically, to involve standards that we discover rather than create.
JPA shifts from defining moral realism to specific claims about moral phenomenology, as if these were the same thing. What moral realism is, as a position, is conceptually distinct from the epistemic considerations (such as our phenomenology) that would cause us to endorse the view. JPA seems to conflate these. And he does so with no preamble, no argument, and no justification, and in a way that is frustratingly unclear. When JPA says “[…] morality presents itself…” he doesn’t specify who it presents itself to. JPA reiterates this remark again, stating:
I begin by examining the way morality presents itself in ordinary experience.
Note the phrase “ordinary experience.” This term should be a red flag. Philosophers will use phrases like this, then eschew any serious engagement with empirical psychology. What, exactly, is “ordinary experience?” To speak of experience in the ordinary sense is to imply generalizations about how people experience things. Generalizations of this kind are empirical hypotheses. The question then becomes how one operationalizes “ordinary experience.” As we will see, JPA does not present any empirical evidence that ordinary experience presents itself to people in the way he describes. It certainly doesn’t present itself this way to me. So, what does JPA mean? He doesn’t clarify. It might be one of the following:
Morality presents itself this way to JPA, personally
Morality presents itself this way to most people
Morality presents itself this way to most reflective and competent people
Morality presents itself this way to everyone
…or it could mean something else. Morality can’t just “present” itself simpliciter. Something can only present itself to someone. JPA and other realists routinely speak of things presenting, appearing, seeming, and so on without qualification and thus without clarification.
Good philosophy is clear and disambiguates precisely those claims most central to one’s position. It matters a great deal who morality presents itself to in this way. If it only presents itself this way to JPA or just a few philosophers, why should any of the rest of us care? If it presents itself to most other people, well, that should make us sit up in our chairs.
Furthermore, facts about what presents itself in a given way and to who are, of course, psychological claims. While I’m happy to grant a philosopher’s self-report about how things present themselves to that philosopher, philosophers are not entitled to make sweeping claims about how things present themselves to others unless they’re prepared to present appropriate empirical evidence to support those claims. The empirical details matter here, even if some philosophers deny that they do.
This failure to disambiguate often allows moral realists to make psychological claims while retaining plausible deniability that they are engaging in and making psychological hypotheses (though I would argue that it is implausible deniability). I suspect they want to avoid doing so because they’re unable or unwilling to substantiate these psychological claims, or lack an adequate understanding of what constitutes a psychological claim.
There are other problems with JPA’s remark. If JPA’s remarks are about how things appear to JPA, personally, it’s unclear if or to what extent anything could have appeared to JPA “pre-theoretically” or, if it did, how JPA would have knowledge of this fact. By the time philosophers are in a position to make remarks like this, what they personally thought pre-theoretically is in the past, often the quite distant past, and as such they must rely on memory. Memory is generally fairly reliable, but when it comes to philosophical views, it’s not so clear how reliable our memory is. It is quite common for people who change their mind on matters of central importance to insist, and to convince themselves, that “they thought that all along” even when they clearly didn’t. I doubt memory is a reliable guide to what we, personally, thought pretheoretically. If, on the other hand, JPA is making a claim about how things seem to others pre-theoretically, well, that’s an empirical claim, and JPA doesn’t present any empirical data to support such a claim.
Finally, the discover/create dichotomy is an imperfect fit for the realism/antirealism divide. Do people discover or create their food preferences? I don’t know about you, but when I try food for the first time, I don’t “create” whether I like it or not. I discover whether I like it or not. Does this mean taste is stance-independent? No, it does not. Some discoveries are discoveries about our tastes. Metaethicists should retire this dichotomy, because it is misleading.
In JPA’s next section, on moral experience, he continues to make vague and unsubstantiated empirical claims. After clarifying that moral realism is simply the position that “at least some moral judgments are true independent of what anyone happens to think about them,” JPA states:
If it is wrong to torture conscious beings merely for amusement, then it would remain wrong even if every human being on Earth came to approve of such behavior. If compassion is genuinely better than cruelty, then this is not merely a reflection of our contingent emotional dispositions or cultural practices. It is instead a truth about how one ought to relate to other conscious creatures.
And this, I think, captures the way morality ordinarily seems to us. We do not generally experience morality as a system of arbitrary conventions, akin to etiquette or fashion. We experience moral demands as possessing a peculiar authority. Morality seems to place genuine constraints upon us, such that it is up to us to conform ourselves to it, rather than up to morality to conform itself to us.
Notice the profoundly vague use of the term “us.” Who is “us”? It’s not me, since this is not how morality seems to me. So who is JPA referring to? JPA simply does not specify. This is standard for analytic moral realists, who seem to make empirical hypotheses but often refuse to be specific or to state them in a way that is clear enough to generate a testable hypothesis. JPA presents no arguments, evidence, or reasons to believe that this is how morality “seems to us.” This is simply asserted. This is likewise a common feature of the way many analytic moral realists present their views. They frequently make a host of unsubstantiated assertions.
Notice what JPA goes on to claim:
Yes, appearances can be misleading. But: if we abandon the principle that things are generally as they appear absent a defeater, skepticism threatens to spread very far indeed.
[…]
To deny this altogether is not merely to reject a philosophical theory: it is to radically reinterpret one of the central dimensions of human experience.
These attempts to suggest the rejection of realist seemings would usher in the threat of skepticism are premature. But notice, again, the remark at the end here: JPA claims that realist seemings are “one of the central dimensions of human experience.”
This is an unambiguous empirical claim. And yet again: no evidence, no arguments, no substantiation at all. What JPA has presented so far isn’t so much philosophy as it is bad psychology.
JPA’s subsequent objections to antirealism are not impressive. He states:
Still, anti-realist views face a persistent difficulty: namely, that they seem unable fully to capture the authority morality appears to possess.
Morality does not appear to me to possess authority. Are moral antirealists obligated to specifically account for why things seem a certain way to JPA and others to whom things seem this way? If so, then is the primary goal of moral antirealism to psychoanalyze realists?
What a strange claim from JPA. Suppose it seems to an unspecified group of people that the sky is purple. I look up at the sky and it seems blue to me. I conclude “The sky is not purple.” Is the problem with my position that it does not account for why the sky appears purple?
First, note again how weird such a question would be. Does not appear purple to who? The answer to that question matters. Second, if it’s the case that it seems like realism is true to some realists, and if realism is false, then any antirealist account that includes an account of the error in question will presumably require some kind of psychological hypothesis to account for the error. After all, the error in question isn’t an intellectual one. It isn’t a mistaken inference or deduction. It’s a phenomenological error. Given this, it seems that the only possible way to adequately critique realism by accounting for realist “seemings” is to engage in empirical psychology. And if that’s the case, then realists should certainly be interested in moral psychology, since it would be an integral component of any viable critique of realist “seemings.”
Let’s have a look at what else JPA says:
If moral judgments ultimately reduce to preferences, emotional reactions, social practices, or practical endorsements, then it is difficult to understand why morality should bind us in the robust way it seems to do.
The antirealist response to this is simple: it doesn’t seem this way (to at least some of us). Once again, is the defensibility of antirealism contingent on whether we can offer a psychological account of why JPA and other realists are having weird and mistaken experiences? And here we get one of the clearest articulations of a seemingly empirical claim:
Ordinary moral phenomenology does not merely register that one happens to dislike cruelty or approve of compassion. It presents certain actions as genuinely worthy of condemnation, admiration, guilt, resentment, praise, or blame.
Ordinary moral phenomenology. JPA keeps playing fast and loose with the claims in question. Whose experiences is he talking about? Once again, if they are the alleged experiences of ordinary people, the onus is on JPA and others to actually demonstrate that this is how ordinary people experience things. At present, there is no compelling or even particularly good evidence that ordinary people experience morality in the way JPA does. Maybe some do, but “ordinary” remains too vague to make quantitative inferences. Does he mean most? If so, why not say so?
JPA then makes this claim:
Moreover, moral anti-realism often proves unstable upon reflection. Many who officially endorse it nevertheless continue to speak and act as if at least some moral claims possess universal authority.
It isn’t unstable for me. JPA provides no evidence, or even any examples to substantiate this claim. So once again we’re treated to unsubstantiated and underdeveloped claims. What would constitute speaking or acting “as if” at least some moral claims possessed “universal authority”? Also, even if some moral antirealists acted this way, this wouldn’t show that the position itself is somehow inherently or inevitably unstable. It would only show that some people act or think in ways inconsistent with it. Without any further reason to believe this is an especially serious problem, this would not indict antirealism. It is consistent with just about any philosophical belief for the one who believes it to think or act in ways inconsistent with it. That this is possible and in some cases occurs in no way shows that the view is mistaken or unlivable or whatever. Is Christianity false or in serious trouble because Christians often think or act in ways inconsistent with their commitment to Christianity? I don’t think so. JPA goes on to make puzzling remarks that suggest he may misunderstand what is consistent with antirealism:
Tolerance, equality, justice, and human rights are frequently defended not merely as local preferences, but as norms that others genuinely ought to recognize.
I do genuinely think others ought to recognize all of these things! That’s entirely consistent with antirealism!
But once morality is reduced to cultural attitudes or individual preferences, it is difficult to explain why anyone outside those frameworks should be bound by them (or even care about them).
I don’t think people are “bound” by my preferences in some realist sense. I just want them to comply. I also think they’d usually be better off by their own lights if they did.
The rest of JPA’s remarks are dedicated to naturalism, the argument that morality is metaphysically weird, and theism. I don’t particularly care about any of these topics, so I’ll wrap things up here. Instead, I want to focus on more features of the alleged experience of morality JPA introduces in his conclusion:
Morality presents itself as objective, authoritative, and irreducibly normative.
JPA now adds the feature “irreducibly normative.” Once again, morality doesn’t present itself this way to me, and JPA provides no evidence that it presents itself this way to ordinary people or that it is a “central dimension of human experience.” JPA just piles on the unsubstantiated empirical claims.
My work and the work of others raises serious challenges to JPA’s claims, and much of his case for realism would be undermined if those claims turn out to be false. To my knowledge, JPA remains disinterested in engaging with this literature and dismissive towards me in particular. He also has a penchant for blocking antirealists who try to engage with him on Twitter, and disables comments on his Substack posts, so people aren’t able to engage with him there. This is unfortunate. I enjoy engaging with people who disagree with me, and I think JPA and I could learn and benefit from interacting with one another. Sadly, I don’t think that’s going to happen.
Either way, there is a single, common thread tying this post together: JPA makes a host of unsubstantiated empirical claims about human psychology. At present, the best available empirical evidence suggests these claims are probably not true, I have documented this evidence in detail, and I have addressed JPA’s claims to the contrary extensively on my blog already. JPA is, as always, welcome to reach out to have a conversation, and I’d be happy to discuss the empirical literature on this topic, clarify his claims about ordinary experience, and otherwise discuss matters that seem fundamental to our respective positions on metaethics. I don’t think those who agree with JPA, or those who agree with me, benefit from siloing ourselves away and not engaging with one another.


Lance, and your followers here,
This is one of many appeals to justification for moral realism, and it seems you have not yet been able to find one on the web. I will try to offer you my justification..
The place I start is epistemology.
We seem to have three methods of arriving at knowledge:
1) direct intuitive knowing
2) derivation thru reasoning
3) empirical investigation.
Note this was an intuition. I cannot derive this thru reasoning, and instead, if I try to reason it thru, I end up in the Munchausen Trilemma, where all three legs are fallacies. And empiricism famously cannot be derived -- this is Hume's and other radical skeptic's critique of empiricism. Empiricism itself, and its successes, provide an explicitly circular justification for empiricism.
Further, when one investigates 2) above, one discovers that reasoning itself is suspect. Godel's incompleteness theorem, and the Munchausen trilemma, provided strong hints of this -- and the discovery that math is infinitely pluralistic and Kant's belief that Euclidean geometry can be directly intuited to be true is itself empirically false in our universe -- should make one pretty suspicious of method 2. And the recent realization by logicians that logic as well is infinitely pluralistic has pretty much destroyed leg 2 as a valid knowledge route, at least for me.
Aside on logics. We are gifted by evolution with a logical sense. We can reason, even pre-linguistically. I have not explored the psychological literature on this, but offer up my intuition, based on self examination -- which I know you dislike intensely. I suspect that our logical sense has at least three elements. One which looks similar to First Order Logic, with its yes/no absolutes, but which is itself logically flawed, because evolution isn't a logician, an just needed to get us close enough. A second seems to be pseudo-Positivist empiricism, with three states (likely, unlikely, uncertain) and a desire to do hypothesis forming and verification. A third seems to be just open complex reasoning, which we use when critiquing the first two, and led to our improved logics and empirical understanding. All three seem to operate both consciously, and very importantly, unconsciously. The unconsciously driven sense of "just knowing truth" seems to actually mask some examples of our fallible unconscious logic mechanisms generating rationales under 2) and 3) for us.
Further aside on testing. Can one test this complex speculation of mine? Probably. Has it been rigorously tested? I strongly suspect not. It is very specific, and testing this hypothesis would involve massive back-contamination of the test subjects with presumptions about reasoning. Should I withdraw my presumption, and limit my thinking to only points supported with strong empirical evidence? Absolutely not! We humans would never be able to get out of bed in the morning if we limited ourselves to presumptions that are well supported with scientific evidence! To a large extent, we humans MUST rely upon intuitions and very partial justifications.
Back to my case for moral realism. Now, I will discuss in more depth method 3), empiricism. I have summarized reasons why both 1) and 2) should be somewhat suspect as knowledge sources. Method 3, despite its issues with the Trilemma and the difficulty of actually doing enough science, is the best way we have to check our knowledge claims off 1) and 2). However, method 3) appears to be intrinsically realist. The developers of our empirical method, Bacon, Locke, and Popper, were indirect realists. In Popperian terms, we infer reality in our world to the hypotheses that are well supported and useful. We non-scientific humans infer reality to our world, as demonstrated by the development of object permanence in babies, and almost every physical scientist I know is a realist. There are exceptions among theoretical physicists though, so I can't universalize this. And I don't know enough of the social/psych/anthropology etc side. But as a physical scientist, I am pretty confident that almost no physical scientists would have pursued their calling unless they considered what they are doing to be discovering reality.
Indirect realism is subject to all the radical skeptical critiques -- YES this inference cannot be proven (however, under logical pluralism this is an impossible standard) -- and YES we can construct all sorts of alternative logical possibilities. Quine, with his Quine-Duhem thesis, pointed out that even WITHIN empiricism, there are an infinity of possible hypotheses that can match all our relevant data. This is also true of ontological assumptions (which realism is). Nominalism of various forms has been advocated by anti-realists vs. science and the material world. And yes, one can construct complex ontologies that do not assume realism in our world, and are not refuted by our data, or the empirical/scientific method. This is where realists invoke pragmatism. Just as one cannot "prove" empiricism, one cannot "prove" realism. We can only justify it with empirical success -- and possibly appeals to our psychology.
Scientists and babies could operate on a nominalist framework, as per Quine-Duham. But realism is far more motivational, and works better as an IBE. Rationalist skeptics can protest that IBE is not itself justified all they want -- ultimately skeptical babies fail to thrive, and die young. This is G.E. Moore's "These are hands" case. Assuming realism is pragmatic.
For materialists, who may want to engage in a special pleading and deny that one can extend the inference of realism to anything other than matter, there are three replies: a) there is no presumption of matter in Popperian methodological naturalism. It is neutral as to what subject or inference one applies it to. It is on materialists to make a strong case for special pleading exemptions. and b) Psychology tried such an exemption with minds, and the bizarre behaviorism era of trying to do psychology as if we humans had no consciousness. The outcome of that sociological experiment in applying a philosophic dogma to a science field, was a decisive repudiation of the materialist presumption. Theory of Mind is a critical and immensely valuable developmental process for babies and children, and it was almost literally crazy to deny minds while studying them! c) Quine put the burden of defending a special pleading exception directly on Carnap with reference to mathematics, in Two Dogmas of Empiricism. Math is immensely useful, as are all sorts of other abstractions. Inference to indirect realism for abstractions should therefore be the default, and it is on abstraction deniers to bear the burden of justification.
This sets the stage, the last step in moral realism is to go through normativity. We have a science, sociology, that has discovered the tremendously utility of the concept of norms in understanding how societies operate. In your recent debate with David Enoch, he went through norms to infer moral realism. As he is a non-naturalist, my very naturalist argument is not what he was arguing, but his path is appropriate. Inferential indirect realism applies to norms as well. And there is a massive science database on the fruitfulness of norm theory.
I am not myself well read on the psychological literature on moral realism, but I am at least familiar with Kohlberg's stages of moral development, which couple psychological development and how moral thinking manifests in societies. As with all science fields, there are rivals and critics to Kohlberg, but his world is pretty widely accepted. A human moral impulse that generally follows Kohlberg's stages is a reasonable realist inference.
What inferences about moral realism can one draw from Kohlberg?
i) We have a moral intuition. We can sense morality. This is an essential part of our psychology. This is further reinforced by studies of psychopathology -- that there are anomalous humans who do not have a moral sense.
ii) This sense basically assumes moral realism. Every stage of Kohlberg's development assumes there is a compulsion from our moral sense, and the two highest stages presume that realism is objective, rather than sociologically subjective.
iii) Evolution often adapts features present in organisms to other purposes as well, often leading to pluralism of use for a feature in an organism. Kohlberg's stages strongly suggest this is true of the human moral sense as well. The first two stages show adaptation of this moral sense to maintain obedience in children, while they are young and unaware of the risks of the world. The second two appear to be adaptations to maintain our Eusociality -- the tribe/community is RIGHT -- therefore one should submit one's selfish focus to the tribal norms. Eusociality normalizes us/them hatreds, to maintain an "us" focus with a moral compulsion.
iv) All six stages are nominally "open" slots. Kohlberg did not have a specific moral theory, and all sorts of different ones can get plugged into those slots.
v) Among higher level theories, to sort between them to determine if there is a particular moral reality, one must normalize for the lower level biases/adaptations that the moral sense is also used for. Cross-cultural studies on shared norms, the recognition of saintly behavior traits cross-culturally, and the appeal cross-culturally of several specific higher order theories (Rights ethic, Higher Virtues ethic of Love/Truth/Beauty, Utilitarianism, and Gaia Theory all have cross-cultural appeal, and can be seen as "better" working models of moral reality.
This Popperian methodologically naturalist approach get me to moral realism, with flexible content, and pluralist complexity that allows an answer to most of the counterarguments against moral realism.
"Do people discover or create their food preferences? I don’t know about you, but when I try food for the first time, I don’t “create” whether I like it or not."
This is true for individuals. But it is not necessarily true for forms of life. Individuals are born into particular forms of life, hence their tastes and preferences are shaped by such. This may not seem true for people, but I suspect it is because our western forms of life are much more global and hence exposed to many different types of food derived from many different forms of life across the globe.
I am reminded of the story of the Tasmanian Aboriginals who were cut off from the mainland for thousands of years and consequently lost the cultural know how to fish. This despite the fact that Tasmania has an absolute abundance of easily gotten fish. When Captain Cook discovered Tasmania he offered the locals fish as a goodwill gift - they were repulsed.
J.P. Andrew claims:
"Moral Realism: there exist stance-independent moral truths — truths about what one morally ought and ought not to do that obtain independently of anyone’s beliefs, preferences, desires, emotions, or attitudes."
I think there is a fair amount of truth in this, but not in the way that entails moral realism: at least not in the way I understand it (mind you, I find it all quite confusing as to exactly what they mean). To clarify, I am inclined to realism in spirit, but not in any objective sense that seems to imply moral realism.
As individual I am born into a form of life in which I am socially and encultured into a moral sensibility that I did not create or choose, and which I am soon made aware is indifferent to my beliefs, preferences, desires, emotions, or attitudes. That is because I am bequeath from my parents and the wider culture - beliefs, practices, skills, language, and moral values - that are essential to survive and prosper in the form of life that I am born into. Hence different forms of life bequeath different beliefs, practices, morals values etc.
These beliefs, practices etc, are independent of individuals in the same way as the rules of grammar are independent of the individuals preferences, desires etc. They are not however independent of the demands in which our unique forms of life place on us. When JPA claims: "morality presents itself as something to which we are answerable", there is again a sense in which I understand. Life demands certain responses from us in order for us to survive - another way of saying this (perhaps less precisely) is that we are answerable to life for our survival. What complicates this picture, is that different forms of life place different demands upon us.
Anyway, I could go on indefinitely, but hopefully some of this has made sense.