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TheKoopaKing's avatar

The funny thing about the claim that "consciousness is an illusion" is that this is a perfectly apt statement of the thesis of illusionism within philosophical contexts. Words like "illusion" and "hallucination" are given technical meanings in philosophy of mind. "Illusion" is taken to mean that you see an ordinary object in front of you, but you misperceive some of its properties, like perceiving a white wall as pink due to the pink lightbulb that's illuminating the room. "Hallucination" is taken to mean that you don't see any ordinary object in front of you at all, but instead see something completely "in your mind," like a mirage in a desert or a dream while you're sleeping.

"• Fully successful cases of perception – cases in which an object is seen and seen correctly or “as it is” – will be termed perception or sometimes veridical perception.

• In contrast, “illusion” refers to cases in which something is seen, but seen incorrectly or “as it is not”. Illusions includes cases in which a round object is seen to be oval, a blue object is seen to be green, or a tall object is seen to be short.

• Finally, the term “hallucination” refers to cases in which it seems to the subject as though something is seen, but where in fact nothing is seen. Classic examples include Macbeth’s hallucination of a dagger and Hamlet’s hallucination of his father."

The above is from page 15 of Philosophy of Perception by William Fish.

"In an illusion, it seems to S that something has a sensible quality, F, which the ordinary object supposedly being perceived does not have."

"The assumption that hallucinations are possible means that you could have an experience which is subjectively indistinguishable—that is, indistinguishable by you, “from the inside”—from a veridical perception of a snow-covered churchyard, but where there is in fact no churchyard presented or there to be perceived."

Above quotes are from The Problem of Perception SEP entry.

So saying that "consciousness is an illusion" in a philosophical context means that there is something there - consciousness, but we misperceive some of its properties - which is effectively synonymous with the central claim of illusionism, that introspection is unreliable and affords us a mistaken view of the properties of consciousness. The real absurdity would be to claim that consciousness is a hallucination, because you would be denying that you are conscious but are still perceiving something, and presumably perception is in part constitutive of what it means to be conscious.

Also worth noting that representationalism is the most popular view among philosophers according to the Philpapers survery (https://survey2020.philpeople.org/survey/results/4894), and the entire point of representationalism is to oppose the "there is no appearance-reality distinction in consciousness" dogma by allowing for nonexistent intentional objects, giving an account of misrepresentations (illusions and hallucinations), etc. As you might be able to tell, this view is entirely compatible with illusionism. So philosophers are also displaying their lack of familiarity with the bulk of work done in philosophy of mind over the past half century when they think "consciousness is an illusion" is some sort of self own, in conjunction with the ridiculous reading-the-name-of-the-view-and-critiquing-what-you-think-it-means style they're going for.

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Rasmus Enbom's avatar

Hey Lance, you have expressed doubt or even outright denial about phenomenal consciousness and “what-it-is-like” being meaningful. My question to you would then be…

when someone in pain or who is suffering would perhaps feel that their suffering is being undermined, they might say “you don’t know what’s like”. do you understand what that means?

I anticipate that you will respond, as you have done before, that

“I don’t think we can move from colloquial, ordinary uses of terms to the presumption that if the phrases in question are meaningful in those everyday contexts that therefore they’re meaningful in philosophical contexts”

and my answer here would just be: why the heck not? presumably there are many words, or set of words, you're using in colloquial contexts the same way in philosophical contexts, so then why can’t you do the same with ‘what-it-is-like’? how is it disanalogous?

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