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Disagreeable Me's avatar

This was great. I agree with pretty much everything you said, but in particular appreciated the subtlety of the exploration of issues such as whether you might actually care if you discovered moral realism were true, because of the knock-on effect it would have on all sorts of ancilliary beliefs. A really nice point.

Secular Outpost's avatar

Here are some additional thoughts and questions.

First (and I should have led with this), I think both this post and your writing is very high quality. I really appreciate your work!

Second, although I consider myself a moral realist (in your stance-independent sense), I find myself often agreeing with you concerning: (a) the lame strawman objections against moral anti-realism; and (b) the fact that many (most?) of the philosophers who write about moral realism vs. anti-realism seem to assume on a priori basis that most people are moral realists, when in fact that is an empirical question that can only be settled by empirical research.

This post adds to our areas of agreement. I have thought, for at least a decade, that although I personally am extremely interested in metaethics, especially moral ontology / metaphysics, I doubt that it makes any practical difference. Many of my fellow moral realists, especially (but not only) religious apologists who defend a moral argument for God's existence, often allude to the idea that one's stance on moral ontology does make a practical difference. They will ask questions like, "Well, if you deny that objective moral values and obligations exist, then what would YOU say to a dictator like Hitler who says he wants to kill you?" I've never understood the appeal of that argument, which seems to combine the *ontological* thesis of (stance-independent) moral realism with a vague thesis about moral *epistemology* and/or moral *psychology*. The idea seems to be that if moral realism is true, then it somehow follows (or is highly probable?) that: (a) the content of first-order moral beliefs is something known by everyone or almost everyone; (b) some version of motivational internalism; or (c) both. Because I think both (a) and (b) are dubious, I can't imagine how the (alleged) truth of moral realism is supposed to help change the behavior of a would-be murderous dictator. I'd be grateful for your thoughts about that.

Third, turning to the content of your post, your very first paragraph reminds of Finlay's "End-Relational View." I find Finlay's view to be very persuasive. And yet I remain a moral realist. I consider Finlay's view consistent with stance-independent moral realism. You, however, seem to think otherwise. You write, "The “authority” realists believe in is a mockery to the notion..." My reply: "Hey, don't assume all moral realists believe in categorical imperatives." As I understand it, Finlay's view is consistent with moral realism, but not with Kantianism or anything else that includes categorical moral obligations.

Finally, I found your contrast between top-down and bottom-up approaches to be interesting. I don't have much to say here other than that I have tacitly assumed the validity of the top-down approach. After reading your post, I now realize that the top-down approach and framing, even when used with the best of intentions, can be problematic or objectionable to anti-realists.

I could keep going, but I don't want to wear out my welcome, so I will stop here!

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